1) Which of the following is NOT correct with respect to recruitment?
(a) Art 309: Empowers the Parliament to regulate the recruitment and service conditions
(b) Art. 310: Authorises the Parliament to create new All India Services
(c) Art. 335: Claims of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration in making appointments to the Central Services
(d) Art. 311: Provides that no member of All India Services and Central Services and Posts shall be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to that by which he was appointed.
(2) Which among the following is NOT one of the criticisms against the All India Services?
(a) These services are hang-over of the past
(b) They reduce the employment opportunities for the local people, that is , ‘sons of the soil’
(c) They do not facilitate specialisation
(d) They do not promote efficiency in the organisation
(3) Which among the following are the functions of Union Public Service Commission?
1. It conducts examinations for appointments to the All India Services, Central Services and public services of the centrally administered territories.
2. It serves all or any of the needs of a State with the approval of the of the President of India
3. It advises the President on the matters relating to methods of recruitment to civil services and for civil posts
4. It conducts examinations for the selection of armed forces
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2,3 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 4 only
(d) 1,3 and 4 only
(4) Which of the following statements about Central Administrative Tribunal is not correct?
(a) It was established in 1985 under the Administrative Tribunals Act (1985) of Parliament
(b) Its members are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams
(c) It works under the administrative control of the Department of Personnel and Training
(d) It is bound by the procedure laid down in the Civil Procedure Code.
(5) Which of the following is NOT a component of the induction training programme for IAS?
(a) Foundation Training
(b) District Training in the State
(c) Professional training
(d) On-the-job training in cadre States
(6) Which among the following is NOT one of the areas of controversy between the generalists and specialists?
(a) The pay and service conditions of the generalists are more attractive than those of specialists
(b) The proximity to the political bosses which is enjoyed by the generalists is much more than the specialists
(c) The specialists have a greater and quicker chance of promotion than specialists
(d) The performance appraisal of the specialists is done by generalists IAS officers
(7) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: List I List II A. Weeding Interview 1. It is a device of group discussion
invented by the Americans B. Selection Procedure Board 2. used as a supplement to the written examination
C. Group Oral System 3. used to eliminate the unfit candidates from the written test
D. Viva-voce 4. is an independent Method of selection in itself
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 3 4 1 2(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 3 2 4 1
(8) Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ? (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Assertion (A) : The classification of services in the United States of America is more scientific than that of the Great Britain.
Reason (R) : In America, the system of position classification prevails as against that of Great Britain wherein the system of rank classification has been adopted.
(9) Arrange the following Independent Regulatory Commissions of USA in chronological order.
1. The Civil Aeronautics Board
2. The National Labour Relations Board
3. The Federal Communications Commission
4. The Federal Trade Commission
(10) Which among the following are the features of recruitment system in the USA?
1. The Federal Service Entrance Exam and the Professional and Administrative Career Exam are two major exams.
2. There are three types of examination-written tests, oral test and performance tests.
3. The examinations are either “assembled” or “unassembled”.
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1,2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
(11) The Privy Council of Great Britain is presided over by
(a) Chancellor of Exchequer
(b) Speaker of House of Commons
(c) Lord President of the Council
(d) Prime Minister
(12) Which among the following are the recommendations of the Northcote-Trevelyan Report?
1. Promotion within the service should be by merit and not seniority
2. More attention should be given to career management
3. Recruitment should be by open competitive examination.
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) only 1 and 3
(c) only 1 and 2
(d) only 1
(13) Which among the following is NOT one of the objectives of Whitley Councils?
(a) To secure maximum cooperation between the state and the general body of civil servants
(b) to provide machinery for the discussion and ventilation of the grievances related to the service conditions of the staff
(c) Setting up of Civil Service Arbitration Tribunal
(d) To bring together the experience and different viewpoints of the representatives of administrative, executive and clerical civil service in solving the problems
(14) Which among the following is NOT one of the features of Driot Administratif?
(a) It awards compensation to citizens for injuries sustained by them at the hands of administrative authorities
(b) It does not distinguish the personal acts of public officials and their official ones.
(c) It provides for a special tribunal to try officials when they are sued by private citizens for their official wrongful acts
It deals with the citizens’ rights and liabilities
(15) Which of the following are correct about Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission?
1. He is appointed by the Prime Minister
2. He enjoys the status of a Cabinet rank minister
3. he is a member of the Union Cabinet
4. He attends all Cabinet meetings
5. He is the de fact executive head of the Commission
(a) 1,2,4 and 5
(b) 2,3,4 and 5
(c) 2,4 and 5
(d) 1,2,3 and 5
(16) A. Article 16 (2) 1. No person shall be deprived of his property save by the authority of law.
B. Article 29(2) 2. No person can be discriminated against in the matter of public appointment on the ground of race, religion or caste.
C. Article 30(1) 3. All minorities whether based on religion or language shall have the fundamental right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice
D. Article 31(1) 4. No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving state aid, on grounds of religion, race, caste, language or any of them.
(a) A-2 B-4 C-3 D-1
(b) A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4
(c) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4
(d) A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1
(17) The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that
(a) certain features of the Constitution are so essential that they cannot be abrogated
(b) fundamental rights cannot be abridged or taken away
(c) the Constitution cannot be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed in Art. 368
(d) the Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended for it is not a part of the Constitution and at the same time represents its real spirit
(18) Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
(a) First Finance Commission -- K C Neogy
(b) Sixth Finance Commission -- Bramhananda Reddy
(c) Third Finance Commission -- Dr. Rajamannar
(d) Ninth Finance Commission -- N K P Salve
(19) Identify the correct observation form among the following:
Leadership theories seek to
(a) provide up-to-date information technology required by those in positions of control so as to make their grip over others more complete
(b) provide systematic explanation on the shifting market trends so as to be properly guided in investment decisions in the Public Sector Unites
(c) establish a rational framework for defining the ends of social justice and to design appropriate systems and procedures to ensure the same so as to help the mergence of good leaders from the down trodden.
(d) Systematically explain the causes and pattern of influence over individuals and groups with the help of sound assumptions and empirical data.
(20) Consider the following:
In realizing social justice, public interest litigation is used as an effective tool because it makes the judicial process
1. less expensive
3. humane and judicious
Which of these are correct?
(a) 1,2 and 4
(b) 1,2 and 3
(c) 1,3 and 4
(d) 2,3 and 4
(21) If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament?
(a) he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion
(b) he will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House
(c) he can make statements only in the Upper House
(d) he has to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn in as the Prime Minister
(22) Consider the following:
The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House
Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President
The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until immediately before the first meeting of the House
Which of the statements given below are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3
(23) Who among the following became the Prime Minister without being earlier the Chief Minister of a State?
1. Morarji Desai
3. V P Singh
4. Charan Singh
5. Manmohan Singh
(a) 1,2 and 4
(b) 2,3 and 5
(c) 2 only
(d) 2 and 5
(24) Deficit financing is resorted to by the government
(a) to increase the budget allocation for different ministries
(b) to meet the gap between the revenue and expenditure budgets
(c) to increase government expenditure on specific items
(d) to pays the salaries of government employees
(25) Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Article 268 – Taxes levied by the Centre but collected and appropriated by the states
(b) Article 269 – Taxes levied and collected by the Centre but Assigned to the States
(c) Article 270 – Taxes levied, collected and appropriated by the Centre
(d) Article 271 – Surcharge on Taxes and Duties for purposes of the Centre