(1) Neoclassical Theory of organisation is based on the fact that
(a) workers are assumed to be striving to satisfy biological needs through the pursuit of economic goals
(b) structure and order are of prime importance for an organisation
(c) people seek more from their organisation affiliations than economic satisfactions and security
(d) the individual is viewed not only as motivated by economic needs, but also as being influenced by the desire for other needs
(2) Which among the following are NOT shortcomings of Management By Objectives?
1) The End may justify means
2) Emphasis on long-run goals
3) Time-consuming nature of MBO
4) An aid to development
(a) 1,2,3 and 4
(b) 1,3 and 4
(c) 2,3 and 4
(d) 1,2 and 3
(3) “The Social Psychology of Organisations” was written by
(a) Herbert G Hicks
(b) Paul A Samuelson
(c) Daniel Katz and Robert L Kahn
(d) Raymond V Lesikar
(4). Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Assertion (A): While power gives persons the ability to do things, responsibility is the felt obligations individuals have for their actions.
Reason (R): Responsibility is an organisational thing in that persons may or may not feel any obligation for the actions that they take.
(5). Which among the following is NOT one of the advantages of activity grouping?
(a) Coordinating the activities would be simpler
(b) Leads to decline in complexity of work
(c) Reduces the costs of production
(d) Leads to increase in hierarchical levels
(6). Which among the following are the dysfunctions of informal organisations?
1. adept to change
2. group conformity
3. support to organisational goals
4. rumours
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1,2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 1
(7). The functions of Cabinet Secretary and Chief Secretary are given below. Pick the odd one out.
(a) Both are chief advisors to their respective chief executives
(b) The powers and functions of Cabinet Secretary are much more than that of Chief Secretary
(c) Cabinet and Chief Secretaries head their respective civil services
(d) Both are secretaries to their respective cabinets
8) “In its conceptual purity, the mental construct (bureaucracy) cannot be found anywhere in reality. It is a utopia.” The above statement about bureaucracy was made by
(a) Robert Merton
(b) Victor A Thompson
(c) Max Weber
(d) George Bonfanti
9) Which among the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) Bureaucracy too a comparatively detached, scholarly view
(b) Administrative theorists were usually were practicing managers
(c) In bureaucratic theory the focus was on managing the organisation, whereas in administrative theory the focus was on structure of the organisation
(d) Bureaucratic theory describes characteristics of formal organisations whereas administrative theory suggest how to accomplish them
10) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer.
List I List II
(Name of the Book) (Author)
1. Dynamic Administration a. Dantel Wren
2. Principles of Management b. Henry Metcalf
3. The Elements of Administration c.George Terry
4. The Evolution of Management Thought d. Lyndall Urwick
(a) 1-b 2-c 3-a 4-d
(b) 1-c 2-b 3-d 4-a
(c) 1-b 2-c 3-d 4-a
(d) 1-c 2-d 3-b 4-a
11) Morrris L Cooke is known for his contribution to
(a) great productivity of correct organisations
(b) application of the principles and techniques of scientific management to the fields of government and education
(c) chart which plotted planned or actual
performance against time
(d) management systems should always be written
12) Which among the following factors are responsible for a worker’s performance, according to Munsterberg?
1. monotony
2. fatigue
3. psychological adjustment
4. social and cultural factors
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2,3 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 4 only
(d) all of the above
13) “An organisation is a structured process in which individuals interact for objectives”. The above definition is related to
(a) classical theory
(b) neoclassical theory
(c) behavioural theory
(d) modern theory
14). Assertion (A): Power is the ability to do something
Reason (R): Power is the actual implementation of imposing sanctions or rewarding people for their performance.
15) Which among the following are criticisms of Maslow’s Theory of Motivation?
1. Maslow’s Theory has specific, not general application
2. His Theory applies only to the motivation of typical, healthy people
3. Classical Theorists criticised some of the concepts of the need theory since they think that money is the primary motivation of the worker
(a) 2 and 3only
(b) 1,2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
16) Who among the following has incorporated both internal and external motivation?
a) Maslow
b) McClelland
c) McGregor
d) Herzberg
17) Which among the following are the criticisms levelled against Herberg’s Theory of Motivation?
1. The theory is limited by the critical-incident method used to gather the data
2. In the interview, the rater evaluated the respondent’s description of his previous behaviour as he saw fit. No control to main consistent evaluation by the raters.
3. Because, the research measured only extreme happiness and unhappiness, it failed to measure overall job satisfaction.
4. Herzberg’s Theory is inconsistent with previous research
(a) 1,2 and 3only
(b) 2,3 and 4only
(c) all of the above
(d) 1,2 and 4 only
18) Behaviour can be changed by changing the environment in which one functions, it is called?
(a) External motivation
(b) Productivity-satisfaction model
(c) Operant conditioning
(d) Self actualization
19) Continuum of Leadership behaviour was designed by
(a)
(b) Fiedler
(c) Tannenbaum and Schmidt
(d) M P Follet
20) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer.
List I List II
(Leadership Function) (definition)
A. Arbitrating 1. To start or increase movement in an organisation
B. Inspiring 2. Need for recognition and the esteem of others
C. Catalyzing 3. when members disagree, leader solves problem by taking
the decision himself
D. Praising 4. the need to be doing something that is worthwhile
and Important
(a) A-3 B-2 C-4 D-1
(b) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
(c) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2
(d) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1
21) Which among the following is NOT a part of communication process?
(a) source
(b) channel
(c) catalyzing
(d) Noise
22) Arrange the following in chronological order with regard to decision making process?
1. Testing
2. problem identification
3. Organisation goals or objectives
4. performance criteria
(a) 3-4-2-1
(b) 3-4-1-2
(c) 4-3-2-1
(d) 4-3-1-2
23) Which among the following are NOT the features of Human Relations Theory?
1. Job enlargement
2. hierarchy
3. maintenance needs
4. multidimensional communication
5. Loose Project Organisation
(a) 2,3 and 4
(b) 1,2 and 5
(c) 2,3 and 5
(d) None of the above
24) Which among the following committees have recommended democratic decentralisation for the first time in which the district-level body was to be of pivotal importance?
(a) L M Singhvi Committee
(b) P K Thungon Committee
(c) G V K Rao Committee
(d) Ashok Mehtha Committee
25) Which among the following is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Art. 243X : Power to impose taxes by and Funds of the Municipalities
(b) 243W: Powers, authority and responsibilities of Municipalities
(c) 243Y: Finance Commission
(d) 243Z: Elections to Municipalities
26) Which among the following Municipal Corporations may not be suspended at all?
(a) Chennai
(b) Mumbai
(c) Kolkata
(d)
27) Which Collectorate became the first to get ISO 9001-2999 certification?
(a)
(b) Dhanbad, Jharkhand
(c)
(d)
28) Which among the following is NOT correct with respect to the Seventy-fourth amendment?
(a) It provides for the constitution of two types of municipalities
(b) Fixed five year term for municipalities
(c) Constitution of metropolitan and district planning committees
(d) Appointment of state finance commissions
29) Ward Committees are constituted for an area of having a population of more than
(a) seven lakhs
(b) six lakhs
(c) five lakhs
(d) three lakhs
30) Which among the following is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Sovereign: Both externally and internally a country is a sovereign nation
(b)
(c) Equality: equal opportunity and equal status
(d) Fraternity: abolition of hereditary status emanating from titles
31) which among the following are the functions performed by the Parliament?
1. An agency to control the executive
2. as a representative assembly
3. as an agent of social change
4. as an institution that has a decisive say on major appointments
(a) 1,2 and 4 only
(b) 2,3 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 3 only
(d) all of the above
32) Which among the following is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Art 123: It gives the President the right to pass ordinances
(b) Art 111: Gives details regarding the President’s role in law making
(c) Art 361(4): A civil suit can be filed against the President
(d) Art 103(2): The President may seek advice from the Election Commission in the matter of a disqualification of a member of Parliament
33) Who among the following
(a) Eisenhower
(b) Johnson
(c) Reagan
(d) Nixon
34) Which among the following are the functions of the Prime Minister’s Office?
1. To deal with all references which under the Rules of Business come to the PM
2. To help the PM in the discharge of his overall responsibilities as the chief executive
3. to resolve the dispute between two ministries
4. to deal with the public relations side of the PMO
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2,3 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 4 only
(d) all of the above
(35) Which among the following Ministries is NOT a member of the Appointments Committee?
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Ministry of Personnel Public Grievance and Pensions
(c) Ministry of Finance
(d) Concerned Ministry for which appointments are made
(36) Which among the following are the functions of National Human Rights Commission?
- intervene in any proceeding involving any allegation of violation of human rights pending before a court with the approval of such court;
- review the factors, including acts of terrorism that inhibit the enjoyment of human rights and recommend appropriate remedial measures;
- study treaties and other international instruments on human rights and make recommendations for their effective implementation;
- review the safeguards by or under the Constitution or any law for the time being in force for the protection of human rights and recommend measures for their effective implementation;
(a) 1,2 and 3only
(b) 2,3 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 4 only
(d) all of the above
(37) Which among the following statements about various Ministries are true?
1. Out of 44 ministries, only 20 have multiple number of departments
2. four ministries have four departments are more
3. nine ministries have three departments
4. seven ministries have two each
(a) all of the above
(b) only 2 and 3
(c) only 2 and 4
(d) 1,2 and 3 only
(38) Assertion (A): Woodrow Wilson himself was ambivalent about the focus of Public Administration.
Reason (R): He failed to explain the proper relationship between the administrative and political realms and whether administrative study could ever become an abstract science akin to the natural science.
(39) Which among the following are the features of the discipline of Public Administration during 1920’s?
1. Partisan politics should not intrude on administration
2. management lends itself to scientific study
3. public administration is capable of become a “value-free” science with the help of other sciences
4. the mission of administration is economy and efficiency
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 3 only
(d) all of the above
(40) “Case Study Approach” in Public Administration led to the development of
(a) Human Relations Approach
(b) Systems Approach
(c) Behavioural Approach
(d) Comparative Approach
(41) Which among the following are true?
1. Because of the pressure put up by the management, public administrationists developed new methodologies of management that worked where traditional private sector methods did not work
2. management paradigm pushed public administrationists into rethinking what the “public” in public administration really meant
3. As a paradigm, management provides a locus but not a focus
(a) 1,2 and 3only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
(42) Which among the following are correctly matched?
1. Administrative Management: Mooney and Reiley, Gulick and Urwick ,Fayol and Follet
2. Organisational Development: Lewin, McGregor, Bennis,
3. Human Relations: Roethlisberger and Dickson, Maslow, Mayo, Herzberg
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) all of the above
(43) Objectives of organisational development include
1. legitimate human emotions in the organisations
2. evolve more structural and less ‘organic’ organisations
3. develop more effective techniques for conflict resolution through non-authoritarian and interactive methods
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
(44) Arrange the following officers in the District in ascending order of their powers.
1. Revenue Inspector
2. Sub Divisional Officer
3. Patwari
4. Tehsildar
(a) 3-4-2-1
(b) 3-1-4-2
(c) 3-2-4-1
(d) 4-3-2-1
(45) Which among the following are the features of “organised anarchies”?
1. member of the organisation do not define their preference about policies and goals very precisely
2. technology is a unclear as the preferences
3. participation in the decision making process of the organisation is extremely fluid
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) all of the above
(46) Which among the following are correct about evolution of ‘efficiency’ in government?
Time Period Feature
1. 1940-1970 Budgeting
2. 1970-1980 privatization
3. 1980-1992 Management
4. 1992-Present Reinventing Government
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
(47) Which among the following countries spend maximum on training?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(48) Lloyd-La Follette Act (1912) by the
(a) right to organise
(b) right to negotiate collectively
(c) establishment of performance appraisal system
(d) right to demand pay hike
(49) Which among the following is NOT a part of the instrumentalist model of public policy?
(a) The Elite/Mass Model
(b) The Group Model
(c) The Organised Anarchy Model
(d) The Public choice Model
(50) Which among the following constitute criticism of the instrumentalist paradigm in public policy?
1. They ignored the role of the entrepreneur
2. It is based on a bargaining concept
3. They are singularly deficient in imagination
4. Instrumentalism is an inherently conservative approach
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2,3 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 4 only
(d) all of the above
(51) Which among the following are correctly matched?
1. Perfectionism: Aristotle, Nietzsche
2. Utilitarianism: Jeremy Bentham, Adam Smith
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) both 1 and 2
(d) neither 1 nor 2
(52) Arrange the following categories of Civil Servants in
1. Manual workers
2. typists and clerks
3. secretaries of administration
4. civil administrators
(a) 4-3-2-1
(b) 4-2-1-3
(c) 3-1-2-1
(d) 3-4-1-2
(53) The training of civil servants in
(a) Macaulay Committee Report
(b) Travelyan Committee Report
(c) Assheton Committee Report
(d)
(54) Which among the following committees recommended for the abolition of ‘covenanted’ and ‘uncovenanted’ services?
(a) Macaulay Committee
(b)
(c) Aitchison Committee
(d) Travelyan Committee
(55) Which among the following are part of the Department of Personnel and Training in the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions?
1.
2. Public Enterprises Selection Board
3. Civil Services Officers Institute
4.
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2,3 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 4 only
(d) all of the above
.
(56) Which among the following studies have been taken up by the sixth pay commission?
1. Study on Feasibility of Performance Related Pay (PRP)
2. Study for Estimating the Compensation Package for Government Employees and the Cost to the Government
3. Study on Terminal Benefits of the Central Government Employees
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) all of the above
(57) Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Appropriation Bill cannot be amended while the Finance Bill can be amended
2. Same procedure governs both the Appropriation Bill and the Finance Bill
3. Appropriation Bill cannot be rejected by the Rajya Sabha while Finance Bill can be rejected by it
(a)1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) All of the above
(d) None of the above
(58) Which among the following are the recommendations of Kothari Committee on Civil Services?
1. Recruitment to the All Indian and Central Services should be made on the basis of a unified scheme of examination common to all the services
2. A candidate should be not less than 21 years of age and not more than 30 years on 1st July
3. The number of candidates admitted into the Main Examination should be about 10 times than the total number of vacancies
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3 only
(59) Which among the following is/are correctly matched?
1. Post-Entry Training: is a type of training which introduces an appointee to the basic concepts of his job and prepares him for work environment.
2. Informal training: is training by experience which the employee gradually acquires in the course of the actual doing of the work.
3. Centralized Training: Training to the officers of many departments is provided by a central training agency like National Academy of Administration
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
(60) “Training in
(a) Administrative Reforms Commission
(b) Fifth Pay Commission
(c) Gorwalla Committee Report
(d) Appleby Report
(61) Which among the following are different types of efficiency rating systems in
1. Production Record
2. Graphic Rating Scale
3. Personality Inventory
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) all of the above
(62) Government of India Act 1935 allowed the continuation of which of the following All India Services?
1. Indian Civil Service
2. Indian Police Service
3.
4. Indian Medical Service
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2,3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) all of the above
(63) The first examination for direct recruitment for Indian Forest Service was conducted by the UPSC in
(a) 1955
(b) 1967
(c) 1961
(d) 1969
(64) Which among the following are the suggestions made by the Administrative Reforms Commission with regard to Generalists-Specialists controversy?
1. Senior management posts may be selected from all the relevant sources – generalists and the specialists
2. A rational pay structure should be adopted so as to reflect the actual responsibilities of each job
3. All the present services in the Government of India must be regrouped into nine functional categories so that the IAS shall no more be a generalist bus shall have a purely functional role of revenue administration
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
(65) The originator of the Syndicate Method of training is
(a) National
(b) Administrative
(c) National
(d) Administrative
(66) Which among the following are true about standing committees of the parliament?
1. The number of standing committees was increased from 17 to 24 by a resolution of Lok Sabha
2. Each committee of Lok Sabha shall be represented by 20 and Rajya Sabha by 10 members
3. Out of 24 committees 16 are from Lok Sabha and the rest 8 from Rajya Sabha
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
(67) Systems Approach to the study of Public Administration focuses on
1. the inputs that carry the stimuli from the environment to the administration
2. the outputs that carry from the environment
3. an environment that both stimulates the administrators and receives the products of their work
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
(68) Who among the following have observed that Comparative Public Administration was saddled with the twin question of purpose and methodology?
(a) Ferrel Heady
(b) Robert Dahl
(c) Waldo
(d) Nimrod Raphaeli
(69) According to Ferrel Heady, which among the following are the important foci of research in Comparative Public Administration?
1. Modified traditional
2. development oriented
3. general system oriented
4. middle-range theory formulation
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2,3 and 4only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) all of the above
(70) Which among the following are the reasons for the rise of public administration in the post-war period?
1. Behavioural Revolution
2. Dissatisfaction with Traditional Approaches
3. Emergence of Developing Countries
4. Technical Assistance Programmes for Research
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2,3 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 4 only
(d) all of the above
(71) Which among the following are the purposes of the Comparative Public Administration according to Fred Riggs?
1. To learn the distinctive features of a particular system or cluster of systems
2. to explain the factors responsible for cross-national and cross-cultural differences in bureaucratic behaviour
3. to examine the causes for the success or failures of particular administrative features in particular ecological settings
4. to understand strategies of administrative reform
(a) 1,2 and 3only
(b) 2,3 and 4only
(c) 1,2 and 4 only
(d) all of the above
(72) Assertion (A): Development administration is not dogmatic and conservative in its approach to problem solving.
Reason (R): It aims at providing maximum benefits of its services to the very people for whom the administrative organization is designed.
(73) Which among the following are true about Minnowbrrok Conferences?
1. Minnowbrook_I: Its tone, temper and orientation was radical, revolutionary confrontational and change oriented
2. Minnowbrook II: It was oriented to establish social science perspective of Public administration
3. Minnowbrook I: It laid emphasis on leadership, public policies, development plans
4. Minnowbrook II: Its composition was broader in the sense that it emphasized social science perspective of Public Administration
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2,3 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 4 only
(d) all of the above
(74) The term “New Public Management” was coined by
(a) P Hogget
(b) C Pollitt
(c) R
(d) Christopher Hood
(75) In
1. The Parliament
2. The Comptroller and Auditor General of
3. The Finance Ministry
4. Reserve Bank of
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2,3 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 4 only
(d) All of the above
(76) Which among the following are true with respect to resolutions and motions?
1. All general rules applicable to motions are applicable to resolutions also
2. When a member moves a motion, he may speak on it and so can the other members
3. A resolution passed by the House is binding on the government
(a) 1,2 and 3only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
(77) According to Art.110, a bill is deemed to be money bill if it contains the following items.
1. The imposition, abolition, remission alteration or regulation of any tax
2. The custody and operation of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India
3. The appropriation of moneys of the Contingency of India
4. The receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public accounts of
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2,3 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 4 only
(d) All of the above
(78) Which among the following are the key principles of motivation- hygiene theory?
1. The factors involved in producing job satisfaction are separate and distinct from the factors that lead to job dissatisfaction
2. Satisfaction and dissatisfaction are conscious feelings
3. The motivators have a much long-lasting effect on sustaining satisfaction than the hygiene factors have on preventing dissatisfaction.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
(79) Which among the following are is/true about half-an-hour discussion in the Parliament?
1. The Speaker may allot half an hour on three sittings in a week, for raising discussion on a matter of sufficient public importance which has been the subject of a recent question, oral or written, and the answer to which needs elucidation on a matter of fact.
2. A member wishing to raise a matter shall give notice in writing to the Secretary-General three days in advance of the day on which the matter is desired to be raised, and shall shortly specify the point or points that he wishes to raise:
3. If more than two notices have been received and admitted by the Speaker, the Secretary-General shall hold a ballot with a view to draw two notices and the notices shall be put down in the order in which they were received in point of time
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
(80) Which among the following is/are true about resolution to remove speaker/deputy speaker of Lok Sabha?
1. A member wishing to give notice of a resolution, under clause (c) of article 95 of the Constitution, for the removal of the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker shall do so in writing to the Secretary-General
2. The discussion on the resolution shall be strictly confined to the charges preferred in the resolution
3. If not less than seventy five members rise accordingly, the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker or the person presiding, as the case may be, shall declare that leave has been granted and that the resolution will be taken up on such day
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
(81) Which among the following are is/true about the functions of Committee on Public Undertakings?
- to examine the reports and accounts of Public Undertakings specified in the Fifth Schedule to the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha
- To examine, the reports, if any, of the comptroller and Auditor General of
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(82) Assertion (A): The Committee on Public Undertakings was set up on the pattern of the erstwhile Select Committee on Nationalised Industries of the British Parliament
Reason (R): Most of the constitutional provisions in
(83) Which among the following is/are true about Finance Commission?
1. The distribution of net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the union and the states and the allocation of share of such proceeds among the states
2. The principles which should govern the payment of grant-in-aid by the Center to States.
3. The Chairman of 11th Finance Commission was Shri K C Pant
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
(84) Which among the following are true about the functions of Governor?
1. Article 166(2) states that the Governor can make rules of business except in cases where he can act in his discretion
2. Article 239(2) bestows on him the power to make rules
3. Article 356(1) provides that the Governor can make a report about the failure of the constitutional machinery in the state
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 only
(85) Which among the following are true about the distribution of revenues between the centre and states?
1. Stamp duties and duties of excise on medicinal and toilet preparations are levied and collected by the
2. Taxes on the sales or purchase of good and taxes on the consignment of goods shall be levied and collected by the government but shall be assigned to the states.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(86) Which among the following is/are true?
1. Art. 131A: Exclusive jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in regard to questions as to constitutional validity of Central Laws.
2. Art. 130: Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 only
(87) Which among the following is/are true about the legislative assemblies of the States?
1. Under Article 333, the Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than five hundred, and not less the sixty, members chosen by direction election from territorial constituencies in the State
2. Every Minister and the Advocate-General for a State shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of the Legislative Assembly of the State
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 only
Neither 1 nor
(88) Which among the following is/are true about the powers of Legislative Councils as to Bills other than Money Bills? If after a Bill has been passed by the Legislative Assembly of a State having a Legislative council and transmitted to the Legislative Council--
1. The bill is rejected by the Council
2. More than three months elapse from the date on which the Bill is laid before the council without the Bill being passed by it
3. the Bill is passed by the council with amendments to which the Legislative Assembly does not agree
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
(89) Which among the following are the grounds for issuing certiorari and prohibition?
1. Defect of jurisdiction
2. Non-observance of the rules of natural justice
3. Errors of law apparent on the face of the record
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
(90) Which among the following are the important features of Art. 368?
1. An amendment to the constitution can be initiated ‘only’ by the introduction of a Bill either House of Parliament
2. The provisions of the Constitution can be amended by the Parliament by a special majority
3. On a Constitutional Amendment Bill, the President’s assent is mandatory and the President has the option t withhold his assent or return the Bill to the House for reconsideration.
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
(91) Which among the following is/are true about Controlling in an organisation?
1. Transfer detailed data into form showing comparisons and variances
2. Suggest corrective actions, if needed
3. Revise actuation efforts in light of control results
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
(92) Which among the following are the disadvantages of Planning?
1. It is limited by the accuracy of information and future facts
2. It costs too much
3. It has psychological barriers
4. It cannot provide a basis for control
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2,3 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 4 only
(d) All of the above
(93) Which among the following are true about Division of Labour?
1. Adam Smith was the first person to recognise the benefits of division of labour
2. It creates many different and often narrow jobs
3. It allows human labour to become interchangeable, in the process creating problems of coordination
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1,2 and 3 only
(94) Assertion (A): Matrix management was introduced in the early 1970s in response to the growing complexity and size of technically oriented enterprises
Reason (R): It attempts to combine functional and task force designs to improve the synchronization of multiple components for a single activity
(95) Which among the following are the bases of power identified by French and Raven?
1. Legitimate Power
2. Coercive Power
3. Reward Power
4. Referent Power
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2,3 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 4 only
(d) All of the above
(96) Which among the following steps should be taken by the organisation to get managers to delegate the work in the organisation?
1. Make the potential delegator feel secure
2. Desire to dominate
3. Tie in with intelligent planning
4. Determine what to delegate and provide adequate authority
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(a) 2,3 and 4 only
(b) 1,3 and 4 only
(c) All of the above
(97) Assertion (A): According to Peter Principle, every person in a hierarchy tends to rise to the level of his or her incompetence.
Reason (R): A person is performing to his or her maximum capacity yet cannot meet the job demands
(98) Which among the following is/are true about Porter-Lawler Expectancy Model?
An Employee’s individual effort is
1. dependent on the value of the expected reward
2. performance
3. a person’s abilities and traits
4. employee has little idea about the fairness of the total rewards received
(b) 1,2 and 3 only
(c) 2,3 and 4 only
(d) 1,2 and 3 only
(e) All of the above
(99) Which among the following is/are correctly matched?
1. The impoverished type : People-oriented style
2. Autocratic Type : Production-Oriented style
3. The Team Type : Peak of leadership styles
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
(100) Which among the following are the functions of the Programme Evaluation Organisation of the Planning Commission?
1. To point out effective and ineffective extension methods
2. to help explain ways in which some recommended practices are adopted while other are rejected by villagers
3. to make a systematic, recurring of evaluation of methods and results of Community Development
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
(101) Which among the following is/are the advantages of a unified grading structure?
1. An automatic upward grading in a time-scale will be promoted
2. An officer will have to display positive merit to earn his promotion to the highest grade
3. a more conscious assessment of each officer’s work will become practical necessity with commitant benefits
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) All of the above
(102) Which among the following is NOT one of the reasons for the spread of ‘privatization’ movement in the 1980’s?
(a) Pragmatic
(b) Ideological
(c) Commercial
(d) Political
(103) Which among the following are the criticisms of Classical Theory of organisations?
1. The principles are lacking in specificity and hence are not very helpful for the practising administrator
2. Principles contradict each other and hence cannot be wholly followed
3. Classical Theories were conditioned by the sate of the society and technology of their time
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
(104) Which among the following are the advantages of the Principle of Seniority for Promotion?
1. Seniority is objective
2. It is a fair and just basis for promotion
3. promotions are made on the basis of qualifications and achievements of employees
4. it limits the areas of selection for higher post
(a) 1,2 and 3only
(b) 2,3 and 4 only
(c) All of the above
(d) 1,2 and 4 only
(105) Which among the following are true about Planning Programming Budgeting Systems?
1. PPB is an effort to integrate budgetary formulation with Friedman’s economic concepts
2. Its main advantage is to sharpen and clarify the policy options available to administrative decision-makers
3. It is an effort to integrate systems-wide planning with budgeting
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
(106) Which among the following is NOT true about Performance Budgeting?
(a) Critical information required for performance budgeting is the activities of the agency
(b) Planning responsibility is dispersed
(c) Personal skills required are accounting expertise
(d) Emphasis of budgetary agency is on efficiency
(107) Which among the following is NOT one of the features of a Public Corporation?
(a) It is wholly owned by the state
(b) The employees are civil servants
(c) It is usually independently financed
(d) It is created by a special Act passed by the Legislature
(108) According to Katz and Kahn, which among the following are the purposes of Downward Communication process?
1. To give specific task directives about job instructions
2. to give information about organisational procedures and practices
3. to provide information about the rationale of the job
4. to tell subordinates about their performance
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) All of the above
(c) 2,3 and 4 only
(d) 1,3 and 4 only
(109) Which among the following are the ways through which judgmental heuristics and biases model help in decision making?
1. Summarize past experiences and provide as easy method to evaluate the present
2. substitute simple rules of thumb or “standard operating procedures” for complex information collection and calculation
3. save considerable mental activity and cognitive processing
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
(110) Which among the following are the features of Network organisations?
1. basis of action is control
2. employee attitude is detachment
3. personnel focus is on professionals
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
(111) The functions of the National Development Council includes:
1. To consider the national plan as formulated by Planning Commission
2. To secure the cooperation of states in the execution of the Plan
3. To review the work of the Plan from time to time
4. To promote common economic policies
5. To consider questions of social and economic policy affecting development
(a) 1, 2,3 and 4 only
(b) 1,3 and 5 only
(c) All of the above
(d) 1,3,4 and 5 only
(112) Which among the following is true about Rigg’s Model of Development?
1. In a prismatic society, the pressure for change comes from internal sources
2. differentiation and integration are the two key elements in the process of development
3. Integration depends on penetration participation
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
(113) Which among the following is/are true about Japanese administration?
1. It establishes the supremacy of the judiciary
2. The Japanese Diet is bicameral consisting of House of Senate and House of Representatives
3. The Japanese Civil Service underwent a basic change after the Meiji Restoration in 1868
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
(114) Which among the following is/are true about French Civil Service?
1. Civil Servants are divided into Corps, which are divided into ranks(grade)
2. Members of Corps of Mines often practice pantouflage — that is, they take temporarily (and sometimes permanent) leaves from government work and go work in industry
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(115).Which among the following is/are true about American Presidential System?
1. The Congress is made up of Senate and House of Representatives
2. The House of Representatives has 450 members each represents a congressional district for a two year term
3. Each State has two senators, elected at large to six-year terms
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
(116). Which among the following is NOT one of the Independent Regulatory Commissions of United States of America?
a) The Federal Reserve Board
b) The Civil Aeronautics Board
c) The Council on Environmental Quality
d) The
(117) Which among the following statements about Hawthorne Studies are correct?
1. Illumination studies attempted to examine the relationship between light intensity on the shop floor of manual work and employee productivity.
2. Relay room studies tried to test specific variables, such as length of workday, rest breaks, and method of payment
3. Bank wiring study involved experimental changes abut objective data for study.
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
(118).Who among the following has developed the Cognitive Approach to study the human behaviour?
(a) Edward Tolman
(b) Ivan Pavlov
(c) John B Watson
(d)Herbert Simon
(119).Which among the following is NOT one of the authorities as identified by Etzioni?
(a) Coercive authority
(b) Charismatic authority
(c) Normative authority
(d) Utilitarian authority
(120) Which among the following will come under the Executive Powers of the President?
1. He can make rules for more convenient transaction of business of the Union Government
2. He can seek any information relating to the administration of affairs of the
3. He can appoint any member of the Lok Sabha to preside over its proceedings when the offices of both the speaker and deputy speaker fall vacant
4. He can appoint an inter-state council to promote Centre-states and inter-state cooperation
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) all of the above
(c) 2,3 and 4 only
(d) 1,2 and 4 only
PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
TEST – III
ANSWERS
1. c (H & G p 32)
2. b (Not long run, short run)
3. c ( H & G p 71)
4. c (personal thing)
5. d
6. a (H & G p 117)
7. b (chief secretary more than cab sec)
8. c
9. c
10. c (H & G p 173)
11. b (H & G p 185)
12. d
13. d
14. c
15. a
16. c
17. c
18. c
19. c
20. b
21. c
22. a
23. d
24. c (Local Govts. By S R Maheswari P 162)
25. d
26. b
27. a
28. a (three)
29. d
30. d
31. c
32. d
33. a
34. c
35. c
36. d
37. c
38. a
39. a
40. a
41. a
42. c (
43. d
44. b
45. d
46. b
47. d
48. a (nh260)
49. d
50. b
51. c (nh 407)
52. a
53. c(1944)
54. c
55. d
56. d
57. a
58. c
59. b
60. b
61. d
62. c
63. b
64. c
65. b
66. b
67. a
68. d (ff51)
69. d (ff100)
70. d(ff 102)
71. d (ff109)
72. b
73. c
74. d
75. c
76. d (not binding)
77. c
78. b
79. a
80. a
81. a (94, 50)
82. b (fourth)
83. b
84. b (1)
85. b
86. c
87. c
88. a
89. d (p174,bakshi)
90. c
91. c(p35, T&F)
92. a
93. c
94. c (1960s)
95. d
96. c
97. a
98. a (p314 t &F)
99. b
100. a
101. b (checked)
101.d
102. d
103. a
104. d
105. b
106. c (management)
107. b
108. b (fl346)
109. d(fl373)
110. b (fl117)
111. b
112. b
113. c
114. a (great corps)
115. d (435)
116. c
117. c
118. a (Luthans p 26)
119. b
120. d
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